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[MORMONISM. The Faith of the Twenty-first Century. Volume 1. Edward K. Watson. (Liahona Publications. Copyright © 1998 Edward K. Watson.) pp. 278-284. MORMONISM: Section 2, Part 2, Chapter 6. All rights reserved.]
CHAPTER 6
Biblical Passages Some Use in Rejecting Jesus As “God”
Various groups cite many passages that show Christ's humanity and his separateness from the Father when arguing Jesus isn't “God.” In order to arrive at the true biblical teaching about anything, one needs to examine the totality of passages about the topic. Isolating the humanity of Jesus and obscuring the passages which mention his divinity is dishonest. Those who engage in such deceit will be judged by Christ at the Last Day, especially, if they are the reason some reject the divinity of the Savior. Jesus can't save us if he wasn't “God” in addition to being a “Man.” His possession of both natures enabled him to perform the atonement.
Jesus paid the consequences of the sins of collective humanity. He substituted himself. He is punished in our place for the sins we've done. He needed to be ontologically superior than those he's atoning for in order for multiple beings to receive the benefits of the substitution. If Jesus was solely human, his Sacrifice could only redeem one human (e.g., 1 dollar can only be fairly exchanged for another “1 dollar value”). However, if Jesus was also a superior being (i.e., a “God”) as well as being human, his status as “God” enabled him to substitute himself for multiple humans (e.g., one trillion dollars can be fairly substituted with one trillion 1-dollar bills).
Since a “God” is infinitely greater than a mere human, the substitution of a sinless “God” for sinful humans means an infinite number of humans can receive redemption through the sacrifice of one “God.”
The atonement of Jesus Christ shows he has to be “God” as well as a “Man” or else we can't be saved.
Here are some passages in the Bible certain religions use in their attempt to disprove Jesus is also God:
(a) Hos 11:9 I will not execute the fierceness of mine anger, I will not return to destroy Ephraim: for I am God, and not man; the Holy One in the midst of thee: and I will not enter into the city.
This verse isn't a denial of God having the ability to take upon himself mortality. God is simply stating he is superior to man. Despite the wickedness of the tribe of Ephraim, God won't destroy them whereas man would if placed in similar circumstances.1 This verse doesn't disprove Jesus as being both man and God.
(b) Ps 50:21 These things hast thou done, and I kept silence; thou thoughtest that I was altogether such an one as thyself: but I will reprove thee, and set them in order before thine eyes.
This verse simply has God comparing himself to a certain wicked man who doesn't condemn other people's sins. He's talking to this wicked man (v. 16) and mentions the many sins he's doing and then says “Do you really think that I am like you?” The context (Ps 50:16-23) shows this means, a being who takes pleasure in wickedness. It's obvious that this verse can't disprove God being able to be human as well.
(c) Num 23:19 God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? of hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?
(d) 1 Sam 15:29 And also the Strength of Israel will not lie nor repent: for he [is] not a man, that he should repent.
These verses also can't be used to deny the possibility of God also receiving the “man” nature since they are simply stating God isn't a man who is prone to lying or a man who needs to repent. When he says something, it will come to pass.
Num 23:19 is part of a message God told Balaam to give to Balak, the king of Moab, (vv. 18-24) who wanted Balaam to put a curse on the Israelites. This message was about the coming success of the Israelites and the futility of resistance against them (see Num 22-24). God said it, and it will come to pass. This verse was a guarantee from God that the Israelites will be successful.
1 Sam 15:29 was an assurance that the removal of the kingdom from Saul was going to occur. These passages aren't about the nature of God or of the status of Christ.
(e) Isa 53:3-12 He is despised and rejected of men; a man of sorrows, and acquainted with grief: and we hid as it were [our] faces from him; he was despised, and we esteemed him not. Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted. But he [was] wounded for our transgressions, [he was] bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace [was] upon him; and with his stripes we are healed. All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all. He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth. He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken. And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither [was any] deceit in his mouth. Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put [him] to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see [his] seed, he shall prolong [his] days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand. He shall see of the travail of his soul, [and] shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities. Therefore will I divide him [a portion] with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his soul unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.
These verses show that the coming Messiah was to be human, oppressed by others and our intercessor with the Father. Just because it says “a man of sorrows” doesn't necessarily mean that the Messiah was solely a man. Aside from him being a man, he was also God. He had to experience everything that a man experiences and become human so that the Atonement may be accomplished. A human needed to redeem humanity (Rom 8:3; 1 Cor 15:21). As long as one member of humanity triumphs over sin, he can “envelope” others into himself (like a pod contains a pea) and shield others from the consequences of sin.
(f) John 8:40 But now ye seek to kill me, a man that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham.
Of course Jesus was “a man.” This doesn't mean he didn't possess the “God” nature in addition to the “man” nature. The context of John 8:40 supports this stance. Jesus mentioned his pre-existence in v.42 and says he is Jehovah [YHWH] in v. 58 (see Part 3).
(g) John 14:28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come [again] unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.
This passage is about Jesus Christ's position and mortality, not his divine status since other passages (e.g., John 1:1; Phil 2:5-6; Heb 1:3) clearly teach him having a divine nature in addition to having a human nature. Jesus is inferior to the Father only in the sense of position and rank; not in nature. A general is superior to a colonel in rank but they are equal in nature. Both are fully human and one isn't “more human” than the other. A general isn't a superior being in comparison to a colonel just because he has a higher rank, and neither is the Father a superior being in comparison to the Son. Another fact to point out is when Jesus made this statement, he wasn't perfected yet since he still had a corruptible mortal body (John 7:39), not the glorious resurrected body he later received.
(h) 1 Tim 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus.
To this we may add John 14:6 which says, “Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.”
The “God” referred to in 1 Tim 2:5 is God the Father. Jesus is our intercessor with the Father and the only way a person can go to heaven. Just because Jesus is contrasted with God and is referred to as a man doesn't make him an inferior being to the Father since he is repeatedly mentioned in the Scriptures as God and of having the same nature as the Father. Of course Jesus was a man! Just because he was “True Man” doesn't mean he wasn't “True God” as well. 1 Tim 2:5's contrast between the Father and Son isn't about having different natures but is on their separate roles or functions.
Heavenly Father is “God” and Jesus is the Mediator between the Father and us humans). This isn't about an alleged ontological inferiority of Jesus to the Father (which wouldn't make sense in context and would contradict the numerous other passages which mention Jesus Christ's “God” nature).
(i) John 17:3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
Opponents of Jesus Christ's divinity understand the phrase in this passage, “that they might know thee the only true God” to only refer to the Father. Jesus considered his Father to be the only true God. What these critics need to prove is if this statement, in any way, disproves the other passages in the Bible that considers Jesus to also be God? No, it doesn't. The isolated meaning of this verse can be understood to mean there is only one (mathematical) God-the Father and not Jesus. Such an understanding distorts its message. In what sense did John quote Jesus as saying there is only one true God? Jesus is also described as “true God” and “eternal life” (1 Jn 5:20) so his statement in John 17:3 doesn't exclude himself from the term “true God.” See next item.
(j) 1 Cor 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
These particular critics understand this passage to mean there is only one God, the Father of Jesus. As is the case with John 17:3, this passage does not negate the fact that Jesus is also God.
It is important to examine this verse carefully. It says, “one God, the Father, of whom [ex hou] are all things ... ” The Father is the originator (architect) and “ ... one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom [di hou] are all things ... ” Jesus Christ is the creator (builder). This verse is also talking about Jesus creating all things and since only “God” can create all things Jesus also has to be God.
This means the statements of Paul and John about the Father being the only true God have reference to something else. These can only have reference to the almighty ruler of the universe, who is the Father. “[Jesus] was made a little lower than the angels” (Heb 2:7-9) by becoming mortal but after his resurrection, he was “so much better than the angels” who must worship him (Heb 1:2-6). Interestingly, righteous humans who are only married for mortality become equal to the angels (Luke 20:36).
If we understand the term “the only true God” (John 17:3) and “one God” to have reference to the almighty ruler of the universe or the God and Father of Jesus, then yes, there is only one God, Heavenly Father. However the word “God” is also used in reference to (1) one who has the “God” nature and (2) to the creator of the universe. These two conditions would cause Jesus to qualify receiving the term in reference to himself.
1 Cor 8:5 contains the statement: “as there be gods many and lords many.” Paul was originally talking against idolatry but then he said that there really are many gods and many lords, but, to us there is one God, the Father. He acknowledged the existence of multiple gods but said that for the true Christians, there is only one God. That is why the Latter-day Saints only formally worship or pray to God the Father and not Jesus Christ. We worship Jesus but formally pray to him only when he is present, or informally (Acts 7:59-60; 9:14,21; 22:16; Rom 10:12-14; 1 Cor 1:2; 16:22; 1 Tim 1:12; Rev 22:20), despite Jesus is also God, just as Paul never formally prayed to Jesus.2 Neither do we worship or pray to Mary (John 15:16; 16:23). We pray to the Father through Jesus.
Because of these things, John 17:3's “only true God” and 1 Cor 8:6's “but to us there is one God - the Father” have reference to the almighty ruler of the universe, who is Heavenly Father and don't negate the status of Jesus as also being “God.”
(k) Matt 19:17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments. (Mark 10:18 & Luke 18:19)
The word “good” comes from “agath4s” [•("2`H] (18/19).3 Do these verses mean only Heavenly Father is good? What does “good” mean? Isn't it synonymous with “holy/righteous” and means the absence of evil and sin? Did Jesus deny being good? No he didn't. He never stated being called “good” wasn't appropriate for him. He merely said, “Why are you calling me good? No one is good except God.” He claimed only God is good but never defined who “God” is. He didn't say it only applied to the Father. This study has proven the idea of Jesus being God is one of the central threads in the NT which causes his statement “only God is good” to apply to himself as well since he is God. Was Jesus sinless? Yes (2 Cor 5:21; Heb 4:15; 7:26; 9:14; 1 Pet 2:22; 1 Jn 3:5). Was Jesus righteous and without evil? Yes (Luke 4:34; Acts 4:27; Heb 9:14; 1 Jn 2:1; etc.). It's obvious this statement of Jesus includes himself as being “good.” Jesus himself was referred to as being good “agath4s” (Matt 20:15; John 7:12) so his statement of “only God is good” doesn't exclude him. Curiously, “agath4s” is used in reference to others who aren't ontologically holy and sinless (Matt 5:45; 12:35; 22:10; 25:21,23; Luke 6:45; 19:17; 23:50; Acts 11:24; Rom 5:7; Tit 2:5; 1 Pet 2:18). Either way, Matt 19:17, Mark 10:18 and Luke 18:19 can't exclude Jesus from being “God.”
(l) Isa 40:28 Hast thou not known? hast thou not heard, that the everlasting God, the LORD, the Creator of the ends of the earth, fainteth not, neither is weary? there is no searching of his understanding.
Opponents of Christ's divinity use this passage to say God doesn't get tired or rests but Jesus did, therefore Jesus isn't God. What is Jesus? He i s God and he i s man. His “God” portion never gets tired or rests. When he was solely God, he never experienced exhaustion but his “human” portion does. Jesus needed to experience mortality to relate to us mortals (Heb 4:15). If I was the type to twist the Scriptures, I could say God does get tired and he sleeps (Ps 44:23; 73:20).
(m) Mark 13:32 But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father. (Matt 24:36)
These particular critics say God is omniscient but Jesus isn't omniscient because he didn't know his return which means he can't possibly be God.
As mentioned above, when Jesus divested himself of his power and authority of being God to become man (Phil 2:5-6), he lost not only his immortality and omnipotence but also his omniscience. These were only restored to him gradually (Luke 2:52). After his resurrection, he became perfect (Heb 2:10; 5:9; 7:28) and received the complete fullnessss his being God deserves. (Matt 11:27; 28:18; John 16:15; 17:10; etc.). Just because a colonel doesn't know a particular idea of the general at a particular time doesn't make him an inferior being in comparison to the general.
It is sad that there are Bible-believers who insist Jesus is solely human and indoctrinate others that Jesus is only a man. What will Jesus say and do to them when they stand in front of him at the Last Day? (Matt 10:33; 2 Pet 2:1; Luke 12:8-9; 2 Tim 3:1-9; Jude 1:3-8) They are rejecting him because he is God and such a fact is clearly demonstrated in the Bible.
How can anyone who professes a belief in the Bible disregard a very clear doctrine present within it?
If all creatures g lorify Jesus (Rev 5:13) shouldn't we? If we don't honor him in equality with the Father; we don't honor Heavenly Father (John 5:23). Anyone who hates Jesus hates Heavenly Father (John 15:23). I could never accept the re-definition of what the word “God” means by these anti-Mormons to exclude Jesus since it goes against the numerous clear passages in the Bible which views Jesus as “God.”
The Book of Mormon, (from its Title Page to the last verse of Moroni) and the Doctrine and Covenants teach very clearly that Jesus Christ is God. T he idea that Jesus Christ is God is reaffirmed many times in the Bible and the Latter-day Scriptures. Some people have tried to twist this Truth in the Bible but the BM? It truly does what it is supposed to do and that is:
... (For) the convincing of the Jew and Gentile that Jesus is the Christ, the Eternal God.
[ENDNOTES]:
1.HFG. pp. 104-105.
2.UDNT. pp. 53, 226, 231.
3.BAGD. p. 2; GELNT-SD. 88.1; FALGNT. 19; CGEDNT. 19; ATGL. 18; TDNT. 1:10; EDNT. 1:5-7; NAGL. 18; NIDNTT. 2:98-102.
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